As a Bible believing Christian, I am well acquainted with problem passages in scripture and how scholars resolve them. In the past, I even ascribed to some of the explanations for apparent logical contradictions/problem texts. Below is just one which I didn't used to have a problem with, because I accepted the "exception to the rule" view posited by conservative scholars. It's amazing what a few years of study can do to a person's epistemology. Anyway, here's the quandary.
In the book of Genesis, we encounter the age old question, "Where did Cain get his wife?" But actually, that's the wrong question. If one studies the text closely, the implications are that the world's population was substantial by the time of Cain's exile. More important than the "where?" question, is the "how?" question. That is, how does God populate the planet without violating his immutable character?
Bible scholars the world over have answered that question by ascribing a monogenistic paradigm to the Genesis account. The problem is monogenism violates the Levitical Laws governing sexual behavior. Scholars have tried to explain this away by stating that the previous order was abrogated later on because of the genetic defects subsequent to The Fall. But, if that is the case, there is no hint of it in Leviticus. To the contrary, it states that it is "wickedness" to have sexual relations with those who are "near of kin." Near of kin is defined as a parent, sibling, niece, nephew, granddaughter, or grandson. Based on what is outlined in the Law, a monogenistic paradigm is impossible without violating the immutable character of God as embodied in the OT laws governing sexual behavior. To keep God from being inconsistent a scenario involving polygenism would have to be necessary. However, the Biblical narrative offers no explanation as to how this is possible.
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